In response to what he <b>ORIGINALLY</b> said
The homosexual issue:
I’ve read a lot of comments generated by Chris’s original post.
Many of those responding to Chris start out with or include such statements as:
-“I think what Chris was trying to say…”
I suppose if I wanted to have a little fun with this, I could now start generating third and fourth generation comments to what “I believe what PoorBoyHat believed that Chris believed…” or “I think that what Totustuus was trying to say that what Chris was trying to say…” or “I believe that what so-n-so believes that what Chris believes is…”
My point here is that it really doesn’t matter what we believe Chris meant to say. The only thing that really matters is what Chris actually said and what his original statements actually mean. Now if Chris misspoke (or miswrote), that is an entirely different matter and he can correct himself at anytime. But if we start addressing all the “I believe he means…” or “I think he was saying…” then this is going to turn into nothing more than an endless chain of “supposings”.
So, let’s go back to Chris’s original statement - “I believe that being gay is not a sin, but being a practicing gay is a sin.” Since the word “gay” means “homosexual” in this context, I prefer to use the word “homosexual” since “gay” is not used in the bible this way. And this, after all, is a biblical argument.
Chris said “I believe that being gay is not a sin…” This is true – this is what Chris believes. What is not true though, is that the bible teaches this. The bible teaches that being a homosexual is a sin. Let’s keep in mind that according to Chris’s words, Chris is not talking about being tempted with homosexuality – he said “being gay”. There is a big difference between “being” and “being tempted”.
It is very interesting that one of the verses that Chris uses to support his view, 1Cor. 6:9, actually argues against his position. Let’s take a look at this passage.
vs. 9 “Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the
vs. 10 nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers, will inherit the
Chris may have used the NIV where the text actually says “homosexual offenders”. This might give the false impression that the NIV is making a distinction between the “practicing” of homosexuality and “being” homosexual. Both the “practicing” and the “being” are implied in the text. In fact, “being” is more strongly implied since this sin (homosexuality) is paralleled with a whole list of other sins which are mentioned in the same manner – that of “being”.
Also, as my dad pointed out, and to further strengthen my point, in the following verse (vs. 11), Paul (the apostle, not me : D) said “Such were some of you;…” He did not say, “As such were some of you practicing”. As you know, the word “were” is another form of the verb “to be” as is the word “being”. My point is that if “were a homosexual” was a sin (and it is according to verse 11), than “being a homosexual” must be a sin also. The verse goes on to say “but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.” There is no need to be “washed”, “sanctified”, and “justified” if there was no sin.
So, all this to say, that while Chris wants to make a distinction between “being gay” and “being a practicing gay”, the bible makes no such distinction.
One more thing - Matt. 5:44? You got me there! I have no idea how this verse relates to “the homosexual issue.”
P.S. Now if Chris wants to clarify himself and say that he meant to say that it’s not a sin to be tempted, that would be a good thing since that seems to be what everyone else thinks he was saying.
August 21st, 2007 at 9:22 am
Really good response, Paul. I’m impressed.
November 12th, 2008 at 7:35 pm
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